daughtry76
daughtry76
01-03-2018
Mathematics
contestada
why does 16 to the power of 0 equal 1?
Respuesta :
angicarl
angicarl
01-03-2018
16 to the power of 0 is one because any number to the 0 power is 1. This is because you aren't multiply 16 (or any number) by itself any amount of times.
Answer Link
AnimeBrainly
AnimeBrainly
01-03-2018
16^0 = 1 because
any number to the zero power is just the product of no numbers at all, which = 1.
hope this helps
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 83+ )
Otras preguntas
Why did garvey consider black republicans to be the enemy?
If F(x)=x-5 and G(x)=x^2, what is F(F(x))?
help pls romeo and juliet answer all for brainlest
All chemical reactions involve a transfer of energy true or false
What is the x-intercepts of the graph of y = 12x-5x-2
A transformation T: (x, y) (x - 5, y + 3). The image of A(2, -1) is (3, 2) (-3, 2) (-3, -2)
If two male managers exchange a lewd sexual joke in the presence of a female manager, these male managers have exhibited ________. a. nothing illegal or uneth
Where in the continent of russia is vitamin d missing?
What events happened in philadelphia in the 1790s in the book fever?
Which of the following illustrates the proper declaration of a variable and data type to hold a whole number? int myNumber = 10; Int myNumber = "10"; myNumber =